> So, if the plaintiff can prove the content was pirated, then the use of that content downstream is tainted.
Has that been tested in court?
This is quite an interesting case.
Obtaining the book in the first place[0] appears to be quite a clear case of copyright infrigement.
The question of whether a work derived from the book is infringment is pretty complex, and there's a wide range of tests that get applied to determine that.
But is it necessarily true that if you obtained the original work via copyright infringement and then created an otherwise non-infringing derived work, your derived work is nevertheless infringing due to the provenance of your copy of the original work?
Has that been tested in court?
This is quite an interesting case.
Obtaining the book in the first place[0] appears to be quite a clear case of copyright infrigement.
The question of whether a work derived from the book is infringment is pretty complex, and there's a wide range of tests that get applied to determine that.
But is it necessarily true that if you obtained the original work via copyright infringement and then created an otherwise non-infringing derived work, your derived work is nevertheless infringing due to the provenance of your copy of the original work?
[0] https://news.ycombinator.com/item?id=36659041